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Hazmat Driver Erg Responsibilities Military

Hazmat Driver Erg Responsibilities Military

177 Cards in this Set

Hazmat driver

Hazmat Driver Erg Responsibilities Military Test

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Military
1. Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is the definition of a:
A.
hazard class.
B.
hazardous chemical.
C.
hazardous material.
D.
hazardous substance.
2. Federal OSHA 29CFR 1910.1200 and several states have required that local establishments keep on file a Material Safety Data Sheet when:
A.
wood products are used.
B.
personnel have not received specialized hazmat training.
C.
hazardous materials are used or stored on site.
D.
backup emergency power is not available.
. The information paper developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazards of a product is called:
A.
the Emergency Response Guidebook.
B.
CHEMTREK.
C.
the NFPA 704 System.
D.
Materials Safety Data Sheet.
4. A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents:
A.
can be more complex.
B.
occur less frequently.
C.
occur more frequently.
D.
occur in specific locations.
5. The DOT Hazard Class 8 consists of:
A.
flammable liquids.
B.
explosives.
C.
corrosives.
D.
poisons.
6. The primary hazard of a DOT Hazard Class 5 material is:
A.
radiation.
B.
oxidation.
C.
spontaneously combustible.
D.
poison.
7. A cylinder should be considered dangerous regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains because the contents are:
A.
flammable.
B.
pressurized.
C.
toxic.
D.
asphyxiating.
8. The four-digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the:
A.
UN product identification number.
B.
capacity of the tank car.
C.
last date the tank car was pressure tested.
D.
tank car registration number.
9. The NFPA 704 System for identifying hazardous materials gives:
A.
general hazard and degree of severity.
B.
specific product identification.
C.
the DOT hazard class.
D.
the UN hazard class.
10. A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 System indicates that there is
risk in this category from the chemical involved.
A.
great
B.
a slight
C.
no
D.
moderate
11. The white quadrant of the NFPA 704 System is used to indicate:
A.
health hazards.
B.
flammability.
C.
additional information.
D.
reactivity.
12. The fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the quadrant of the NFPA 704 System.
A.
blue
B.
red
C.
white
D.
yellow
13. The type of hazardous material identification method required for shipping some products over 1001 pounds is the:
A.
DOT System.
B.
labeling method.
C.
NFPA 704 Method.
D.
stamping method.
14. Placards or labels indicate general hazard recognition by:
A.
the numbers 0-4 indicating relative risk.
B.
always indicating the product by name.
C.
giving the UN hazard class number.
D.
the number in the bottom quadrant on the diamond.
15. A Bill of Lading contains valuable information about the origin of the product and is the type of shipping paper used when transporting product via:
A.
truck.
B.
railway car.
C.
barge.
D.
aircraft.
16. Care and control of the Waybill/Consist is the responsibility of the:
A.
truck driver.
B.
train conductor/engineer.
C.
ship captain or master.
D.
aircraft pilot
17. The normal location for the Bill of Lading is in the:
A.
wheelhouse.
B.
cockpit.
C.
conductor's possession.
D.
cab of the truck.
18. During an incident involving a train, you should look for the shipping papers in any of the following except:
A.
engine or caboose.
B.
conductor's possession.
C.
rail cars carrying the products.
D.
engineers possession.
19. Using the human senses of smell or taste to determine the presence of a hazardous material is:
A.
the best first step.
B.
not reliable if the product is heavier than air.
C.
unreliable, unacceptable, and unsafe.
D.
recommended unless you have a head cold.
20. Hazardous occupancies and problem locations should be identified and evaluated:
A.
en route to an emergency.
B.
during preincident planning.
C.
during training sessions.
D.
at least once a year.
21. Local emergency response personnel can avoid considerable confusion if the _______ is utilized in preincident planning.
A.
ERG
B.
MSDS
C.
Shipping Paper
D.
Bill of Lading
22.
T F
Shipping papers will contain an entry for hazard classification according to
DOT regulations.
23. Which of the following should be found on shipping papers when transporting hazardous material?
A.
UN identification number
B.
Proper name of the shipped materials
C.
Hazard class of shipment
D.
All of the above
24. Any product, substance, or organism included by its nature or by the regulation in any of the classes listed in the schedule (UN 9 Classes of Hazardous Materials) is the definition of a/an:
A.
Dangerous Cargo Manifest.
B.
Extremely Hazardous Substance.
C.
Corrosive Materials.
D.
Dangerous Goods (Canada).
25. On a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the:
A.
UN hazard class.
B.
guide number from the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook to be used
C.
UN product identification number.
D.
relative risk, 0-4.
26. The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying over 1001 pounds of corrosive to display a placard.
A.
yellow
B.
white over black
C.
white
D.
black and yellow
27. The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored:
A.
red.
B.
yellow.
C.
green.
D.
orange.
28. Directions: (Caution, this is a two step question worth 3 points.)
This placard is placed on transport vehicles that are transporting flammable liquids.
Label the parts on the placard by placing the number in the blank next to the letter
which identifies it (DOT). Then, select the sequence of answers that match yours
from A-D below.
1. United Nations Hazard Class Number
2. UN Product ID Number
3. Hazard Class Symbol
4. National Classification System, Identifies Class or Division
A.
4, 2, 3
B.
2, 1, 3
C.
3, 2, 1
D.
4, 3, 2
29. Any liquid or solid that causes visible destruction of human skin tissue or steel is considered a/an material.
A.
acidic
B.
corrosive
C.
alkali
D.
etiological
30. The placard drawing below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Explosives
B.
Nonflammable gas
C.
Flammable solid
D.
Oxidizer
31. A type of compressed gas that can be extremely dangerous to life and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a/an:
A.
poison gas.
B.
pressurized gas.
C.
inorganic gas.
D.
inert gas.
32. Liquid or solid substances that emit toxic, dangerous, and irritating fumes are known as:
A.
poisonous materials.
B.
pyrophoric materials.
C.
etiological agents.
D.
cryogenic materials.
33. The placard drawing below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Explosives
B.
Nonflammable gases
C.
Flammable solids
D.
Oxidizers
34. The placard illustration below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Explosives
B.
Nonflammable gases
C.
Flammable solids
D.
Oxidizers
35. The placard illustration below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Explosives
B.
Nonflammable gases
C.
Flammable solids
D.
Oxidizers
6. The placard illustration below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Dangerous when wet
B.
Combustibles
C.
Health hazard
D.
Oxidizers
37. The placard illustration below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Radioactives
B.
Poison Gases
C.
Flammable liquids
D.
Corrosives
8. The placard drawing below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Radioactives
B.
Poison gases
C.
Poison liquids
D.
Corrosives
39. The placard drawing below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Poisons
B.
Miscellaneous
C.
Flammable gases
D.
Corrosives
40. The placard illustration below represents which of the following hazard classes?
A.
Flammable gases
B.
Corrosives
C.
Flammable liquid/combustible
D.
Explosives
43. Position # 2 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
A.
flammability (red).
B.
health (blue).
C.
reactivity (yellow).
D.
special information (white).
44. Position # 3 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
A.
special information (white).
B.
health (blue).
C.
reactivity (yellow).
D.
flammability (red).
45. Position # 4 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:
A.
health (blue).
B.
flammability (red).
C.
reactivity (yellow).
D.
special information (white).
46. In the NFPA 704 System of Identification, the diamond-shaped placard used for fire hazard is always colored:
A.
blue.
B.
yellow.
C.
red.
D.
white.
47. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) lists as the standard for identifying fire hazards of materials at fixed facilities.
A.
704
B.
1991
C.
472
D.
1910.120
48. In the NFPA 704 System, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored:
A.
blue.
B.
yellow.
C.
red.
D.
white.
49. A Hazard Class of 3, within the U.N. Labeling System indicates a product.
A.
flammable gas
B.
flammable solid
C.
flammable liquid
D.
poisonous liquid
50. A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels, would be labeled Hazard Class under the U.N. Labeling System.
A.
3
B.
5
C.
7
D.
9
51. A container of flammable solids would receive a UN Label or placard with a hazardous classification number of:
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
52. Using the DOT Labeling System, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard
classification of:
A.
1.
B.
2.
C.
3.
D.
4.
53. Within the UN System, a container labeled with a Hazard Class 4 contains a:
A.
combustible liquid.
B.
flammable gas.
C.
flammable solid.
D.
flammable liquid.
54. Of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is/are:
A.
the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook.
B.
the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
C.
DOT Placards.
D.
the NFPA 704 System
55. Physical data, chemical name, exposure limits, health hazard data, and special precautions are all parts of the:
A.
Dangerous Cargo Manifest.
B.
Emergency Response Guidebook.
C.
Material Safety Data Sheet.
D.
UN Identification System
56. The background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is:
A.
yellow.
B.
orange.
C.
red.
D.
white.
57. Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, an octagon-shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a:
A.
moderate fire hazard.
B.
chemical fire hazard.
C.
mass detonation.
D.
mass escape.
58. Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is:
A.
#3 in a triangle.
B.
#1 in a square.
C.
#2 in a square.
D.
#4 in a circle.
59. Given the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook, the hazard class number assigned for vinyl chloride with the I.D. #1086 is:
A.
2.
B.
4.
C.
9.
D.
1.
60. An explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the U.S. Military Marking System as a:
A.
#3 in an X.
B.
#4 in an X.
C.
#2 in an X.
D.
#4 in a circle.
61. When referring to the U.S. Military Marking System, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that:
A.
protective mask or breathing apparatus must be used.
B.
fumigants are being used.
C.
turn-out clothing must be used.
D.
hazardous material is of an odorous nature.
62. A tractor-trailer carrying 975 lbs. of organic peroxides requires:
A.
a white placard.
B.
an orange placard.
C.
a yellow placard.
D.
no placard.
63. The NFPA 704 System provides the:
A.
general hazard information.
B.
product's chemical name.
C.
four-digit UN number.
D.
number used to look up the product's name.
64. Some materials can become explosive as they age. One example of this type of material is:
A.
radioactive material.
B.
poison.
C.
flammable gas.
D.
organic peroxide.
65. The primary hazard of an oxidizer is its ability to:
A.
disintegrate tissue and steel.
B.
accelerate combustion.
C.
form combustible mixtures in air.
D.
cause harm when inhaled.
66. The DOT Hazard Class 2 includes:
A.
flammable solids.
B.
poison liquid.
C.
nonflammable gases.
D.
corrosive poisons.
67. The DOT Hazard Class 1 includes:
A.
etiologic agents.
B.
explosives.
C.
corrosives.
D.
nonflammable liquids.
68. The UN Hazard Class 6 includes all of the following except:
A.
liquid poisons.
B.
infectious substances.
C.
poison solids.
D.
poison gases.
69.
T F
Placards that contain the UN class number 6 at the bottom identify a material that may be an infectious substance hazard.
70. The NFPA 704 System indicates a:
A.
relative risk.
B.
product's chemical name.
C.
four-digit number.
D.
number used to look up the name of the product.
71. In using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use
of would be considered the most dangerous.
A.
hearing
B.
vision
C.
the sense of smell
D.
binoculars
72. Which of the following is not a likely location for terrorist activity?
A.
Public assembly
B.
Mass transit systems
C.
Telecommunication facilities
D.
Remote facility in rural area
73. According to the NFPA 704 System, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets?
A.
4, 4, 2
B.
3, 2, 1
C.
0, 2, 4
D.
3, 3, 2
74. Given the product name, you can find the four-digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing all the following except:
A.
shipping papers.
B.
Emergency Response Guidebook.
C.
MSDS Sheets.
D.
NFPA 704.
75. A reference book intended to be carried in every emergency vehicle in the United States is the:
A.
D.E.C.I.D.E. Action Plan.
B.
NIOSH Handbook of Hazardous Materials.
C.
Emergency Response Guidebook.
D.
NFPA Fire Protection Handbook.
76. Which of the following would not be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility?
A.
NFPA 704 diamond
B.
DOT Emergency Response Guidebook
C.
Labels
D.
Material Safety Data Sheets
77. Under SARA Title III, some facilities are required to have MSDS information. The primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have MSDS information is whether the facility:
A.
is located within 1000 feet of residential neighborhoods.
B.
has chemicals that are not consumer quantities.
C.
has 24-hour security.
D.
has an area under one roof that is greater than 250,000 square feet.
78. The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the Emergency Response Guidebook are:
A.
reactivity and solubility.
B.
spill and leak.
C.
corrosive and flammable.
D.
health and fire/explosion.
79. If a placard is visible, but no product name or four digit UN number is given, how can you determine which guide page of the Emergency Response Guidebook to use?
A.
The table of placards lists guide numbers.
B.
The hazard class number determines the guide page number.
C.
Use the green section of the Emergency Response Guidebook.
D.
You cannot use the Emergency Response Guidebook without
a name or number.
0. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the recommended action for a small fire involving a substance identified by the UN identification number 2553 would be to:
A.
use water only.
B.
use dry chemical, CO2, water spray, or regular foam.
C.
let the fire burn unless leak can be stopped immediately.
D.
smother with sand.
82. One resource that deals with protective action distances involving poisonous gas, is the:
A.
DOT Emergency Response Guide Book.
B.
Material Safety Data Sheet.
C.
NFPA Hazardous Materials Data Base.
D.
Fire Chief's Handbook.
83. Given the 2000 edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the recommended personal protective equipment for a hazardous material spill involving Dichlorvos is:
A.
street clothing and work uniform.
B.
structural firefighter protective clothing and positive pressure SCBA.
C.
positive pressure SCBA.
D.
chemical protective clothing and positive pressure SCBA.
84. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the Table of Isolation Distances, defines a 'small spill' as a spill of up to ______ from a leaking package.
A.
less than 75 gallons
B.
approximately 200 liters
C.
more than 55 gallons
D.
more than 75 gallons
85. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the isolation distance for a small spill involving a package of the chemical boron trichloride is:
A.
100 feet.
B.
1000 feet.
C.
1500 feet.
D.
1 mile.
86. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the shape of the Initial Isolation Zone should be a:
A.
circle
B.
square
C.
triangle
D.
rectangle
87.
T F
Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, if the index entry for a hazardous material is highlighted, the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances should be used.
88. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the recommended personal protective equipment for a hazardous material fire involving ammonium hydrogen sulfate is:
A.
street clothing and work uniform.
B.
structural firefighter protective clothing and positive pressure SCBA.
C.
positive pressure SCBA.
D.
chemical protective clothing and positive pressure SCBA.
89. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the shape of the Protective Action Zone should be a:
A.
circle.
B.
square.
C.
triangle.
D.
rectangle.
90.
T F
Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, if the index entry for a hazardous material is not highlighted, the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances should be used.
91. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, the following
statement describes:
People inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes.
A.
protective actions.
B.
initial isolation area.
C.
evacuation.
D.
in-place protection.
92. Given the 2000 Edition of the Emergency Response Guidebook, are steps taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident
involving releases of dangerous goods.
A.
protective actions
B.
isolating the hazard area and denying entry
C.
evacuation procedures
D.
in-place protection procedures
Answer: A
93. The chemicals listed in highlighted type in the Emergency Response Guidebook were selected because:
A.
they present a toxic inhalation hazard.
B.
their vapors are explosive.
C.
they create corrosive vapors.
D.
the actions listed in the orange section will not be effective for these chemicals.
Answer: A
96. The general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are:
A.
inhalation, ingestion, radiation, and injection.
B.
injection, infection, radiation, and adsorption.
C.
inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection.
D.
absorption, dilution, injection, and ingestion.
Answer: C
97. Which of the following is not an action that should be taken regarding an individual who has come in contact with a corrosive material?
A.
Remove the individual from the hazard area.
B.
Flush exposed skin with water.
C.
Apply petroleum jelly to the exposed area.
D.
Remove the contamination from the clothing.
Answer: C
Directions: Match the terms in Column A with the appropriate definitions from Column B.
Column A Column B
98. Isolate hazard area and deny entry
99. Evacuate
100. In-place protection
A.
Moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area
B.
Keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area
C.
Keeping everyone away from the affected area
D.
Having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area.
101. When determining initial stand-off or isolation distances for improvised explosive devices, it is best for responders to:
A.
routinely isolate the immediate danger area 2,000 feet in all
directions regardless of the device.
B.
use explosives detection equipment or bomb sniffing dogs
to accomplish the task.
C.
wait for bomb technicians to size-up the situation and confer
with the incident commander before making the call.
D.
understand that recommended isolation distances should be
considered only as a guide.
Answer: D
102. Scene control at a terrorism incident may present unique challenges for the responders. In particular, responders must be aware that:
A.
the incident may have taken place in a high crime area, so they should wait for the police before taking any action.
B.
the terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again.
C.
the terrorist will not intentionally target responders, so they should consider the scene safe except for any hazardous materials present.
D.
scene control at criminal incidents is solely the responsibility of
law enforcement, so they should focus on other activities.
Answer: B
103. The most effective personal protection principle(s) for responders involved with B-NICE materials is/are:
A.
time, distance, and shielding.
B.
Level A and B chemical protection.
C.
scene control.
D.
product isolation.
Answer: A
104. Which of the following is/are potential ignition sources found at the scenes of hazardous materials incidents?
A.
Radios, hand lights, pagers
B.
Heated metal surfaces
C.
Electrostatic and frictional sparks
D.
Lighting equipment
E.
All of the above
Answer: E
105. To protect themselves and others, first responders must be able to make a proper assessment. Which of the following is the most important part of assessment?
A.
Calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident
B.
Recognizing the presence of hazardous materials
C.
Determining the appropriate actions to be taken recommended by the ERG
D.
Securing the area of the emergency
Answer: B
Directions: Match the hazard type in Column A with its description in Column B.
Column A Column B
106. Thermal
107. Asphyxiation
108. Chemical
109. Etiological
A.
Includes poisons and corrosives
B.
Exposure to a microorganism or its toxin
C.
Can lead to suffocation and may be either simple or chemical
D.
Excessive heat or excessive cold
E.
Mechanical
111. A recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is an MC 312. The container most probably contains a:
A.
flammable liquid.
B.
corrosive liquid.
C.
poison gas.
D.
flammable solid.
116. An MC 307/DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier is designed to carry chemicals with pressures not to exceed psi.
A.
3.0
B.
75.0
C.
40.0
D.
30.0
117. A tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids, Class B poisons, and liquid food products, with vapor pressures up to 3 psi, is an:
A.
MC 306/DOT 406.
B.
MC 307/DOT 407.
C.
MC 312/DOT 412.
D.
MC 331/DOT 407.
118. A tank carrier designed to haul various chemicals whose pressures do not exceed 40 psi at 70°F would be an:
A.
MC 306/DOT 406.
B.
MC 307/DOT 407.
C.
MC 312/DOT 412.
D.
MC 331.
120. A cryogenic material would be carried in an:
A.
MC 306/DOT 406.
B.
MC 307/DOT 407.
C.
MC 331.
D.
MC 338.
122. Pipe-like packaging of radioactive materials is done in steel reinforced concrete casks, lead pipes, or heavy gauge metal drums. This packaging is considered to be Type:
A.
2.
B.
B.
C.
A.
D.
1.
123. The shipping of radioactive materials in a metal drum is considered a Type packaging.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
125. The number would be shown in the Flammability Quadrant of the NFPA 704 System for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur and on which water spray may be used to extinguish a fire.
A.
1.
B.
2.
C.
3.
D.
4.
128. The proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an:
A.
MC 306/DOT 406.
B.
MC 307/DOT 407.
C.
MC 312/DOT 412.
D.
MC 331.
130.
T F
Pipeline markers contain information describing the transported commodity and the name and telephone number of the carrier.
131. A tank car has the characteristics of an inner tank and a vacuum-space outer shell and is nonpressurized.
A.
flammable liquid
B.
cryogenic
C.
combustible liquid
D.
acid
132. A cryogenic liquid tank car will have:
A.
a single uninsulated shell.
B.
an enclosed dome.
C.
a large and bulky double shell with insulation.
D.
fittings and valves visible on top of the tank car.
133. A rail car with a stenciled name on its side is generally a:
A.
coded car.
B.
pressurized car.
C.
dedicated car.
D.
gas-carrying car.
134. If a rail car had a cylindrical tank with rounded ends and a covered dome containing all the fittings, it would be classified as a rail car.
A.
nonpressure
B.
cryogenic liquid tank
C.
pressure tank
D.
dry bulk tank
135. A rail car with exposed fittings would be considered to be a car.
A.
nonpressure or low-pressure tank
B.
pressure or high-pressure tank
C.
hopper
D.
cryogenic liquid tank
136. rail tank cars are designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids refrigerated -150°F and below.
A.
Nonpressure or low-pressure tank
B.
Pressure or high-pressure tank
C.
Hopper
D.
Cryogenic liquid tank
137. There is specific information given on pipeline markers. Of the information given below, which is not required on a pipeline marker?
A.
Destination of the product
B.
Product carried in the pipeline
C.
Owner of the pipeline
D.
Emergency telephone numbers
138. Which of the following is not mandatory information found on a pesticide label?
A.
EPA registration number
B.
Signal word
C.
Name of the manufacturer
D.
Active ingredients
139. Which of the following is not a required signal word on a pesticide label?
A.
Caution
B.
Warning
C.
Toxic
D.
Danger
140. A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled
under the UN Labeling System.
A.
3
B.
5
C.
7
D.
9
141. When implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should:
A.
stage in the line-of-sight path of the suspected device.
B.
use only one radio when in close proximity to the device.
C.
be alert for secondary devices.
D.
move the device away from primary exposures.
142. To which outward warning indicator(s) should responders be alert during a suspected terrorist event?
A.
Strong chemical odors without apparent reason
B.
Unexplained patterns of illness or death
C.
Unusual containers that are out-of-place with the surroundings
D.
All of the above
143. Two complicating factors facing emergency responders at a terrorist incident are:
A.
media relations and political implications.
B.
the need for auto-injectors and radiological equipment.
C.
secondary devices and uncertain weather conditions.
D.
crime scene considerations and possible secondary events.
Directions: Match the terms in Column A with their definitionsin Column B.
Column A Column B
145. Name of pesticide(s)
146. Signal words
147. EPA registration number(s)
A.
Numbers that can be used to acquire additional information regarding specific products
B.
Manufacturer's name of the product
C.
Indicates relative hazard of the product
D.
Used to cross reference information about the product
148. All fixed facility tanks with a capacity of more than 50 gallons or 189 liters:
A.
must have a visible NFPA 704 placard.
B.
must display a U.N. Identification number at least 4 inches in height.
C.
must be registered in the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook.
D.
are not subject to DOT regulations.
149. A tractor trailer hauling a tanker containing gasoline should display a placard with the U.N. designation of:
A.
1203 Flammable.
B.
3096 Corrosive.
C.
3180 Flammable Solid.
D.
1864 Fuel Oil.
150. A railcar tanker with a stencil marking of DOT 111 is a/n:
A.
covered floating roof tank.
B.
MC 306.
C.
non-pressurized railcar.
D.
cryogenic storage car.
151. When referring to hazardous materials shipments, the term 'IM' stands for:
A.
Incident Management.
B.
Inter-modal.
C.
Incident Model.
D.
Internally Molded.
152. is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents.
A.
A placard
B.
Shipping papers
C.
A container ID
D.
The manufacturer's name
153. Typically, the first responder's scope of responsibility for a hazardous material
ends when they:
A.
recognize the type of container.
B.
identify the material in the container.
C.
transmit recognition and identification information to an authority.
D.
All the above.
154. Pressure facility tanks are divided into two categories:
A.
bulk and nonbulk.
B.
below-ground and above-ground.
C.
cryogenic and corrosive.
D.
low-pressure and high-pressure.
155. Bags may be used to store:
A.
nonbulk dry items such as fertilizer.
B.
cryogenic liquids.
C.
pressurized gasses.
D.
nerve agents.
156. A common hazard with cylinders involved with fire is:
A.
melting of the exterior shell.
B.
lack of release valves.
C.
the potential for explosion.
D.
loss of pressure.
157. A common characteristic of cylinders is:
A.
relief valves.
B.
fill caps.
C.
manual-control vents.
D.
air monitoring alarms.
158. During the recognition and identification of facility containers process, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 System to identify the:
A.
amount of product stored.
B.
flammability of the material.
C.
signs and symptoms of exposure.
D.
specific chemical stored.
159. If the type of container located at a facility is a fiberboard drum, the firefighter should realize that the contents of the package:
A.
is a cryogenic gas.
B.
is a pressurized liquid.
C.
poses a minimal health risk.
D.
poses a significant health risk.
160. Which of the following is not an example of a pressure facility tank?
A.
High-pressure horizontal
B.
High-pressure spherical
C.
Cryogenic liquid
D.
Underground storage
Answer:
161. Common hazardous materials stored in nonbulk packages referred to as bags are:
A.
corrosives.
B.
fertilizers.
C.
poisons.
D.
gases.
162. Which of the following clues may assist the firefighter in determining the various
facility containers.
A.
Color coding
B.
Signal words
C.
Container specification numbers
D.
All of the above
163. Referencing a MSDS, carbon dioxide and nitrogen are examples of asphyxiants, gases that displace oxygen.
A.
simple
B.
terminal
C.
general
D.
chemical
164. In the UN/DOT Marking System, Hazard Class 3 includes:
A.
black powder.
B.
gasoline.
C.
ammonium nitrate.
D.
magnesium.
165. Emergency centers such as are principal agencies providing immediate technical assistance to an emergency responder.
A.
CHEMTEK
B.
NFPA
C.
CHEMCO
D.
CHEMTREC
166. Cryogenic liquids are those which exist at:
A.
greater than 32°F.
B.
minus 0°F.
C.
minus 150°F.
D.
minus 110°F.
167. A substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation would be labeled a hazard classification under the UN Labeling System.
A.
7
B.
9
C.
11
D.
13
168. The concentration that should never be exceeded is called:
A.
TLV-C.
B.
IDLH.
C.
TLV-TWA.
D.
STEL.
169. Which of the following values represents an atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or produces immediate, irreversible, debilitating effects on health?
A.
TLV-TWA
B.
IDLH
C.
REL
D.
PEL
170. Which of the following exposure values could be repeated a maximum of four times daily for 15 minutes with a 60-minute rest period between exposures for an 8-hour work day?
A.
IDLH
B.
TLV-TWA
C.
TLV-STEL
D.
TLV-C
171. The maximum airborne concentration to which an average healthy person may be exposed 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week best defines:
A.
TLV-TWA.
B.
TLV-STEL.
C.
IDLH.
D.
TLV-C.
172. Which of the following materials poses a threat to a developing fetus should
exposure occur?
A.
Biogen
B.
Etiogen
C.
Teratogen
D.
Synergen
173. Radiation that can be stopped by a piece of paper consists of particles.
A.
alpha
B.
low-beta
C.
high-beta
D.
gamma
174. Materials that emit ionizing radiation are called materials.
A.
negative-ion
B.
synesgeous
C.
radioactive
D.
lethal-concentration
175. The concentration of an ingested or injected substance that results in the death of 50% of the test population is:
A.
LC-50.
B.
LD-50.
C.
DC-50.
D.
CD-50.
176. The measurement commonly used by OSHA in evaluating work-place exposure is:
A.
PEL.
B.
LC50.
C.
TLV/TWA.
D.
Both A and C.
177. Generally, the most informative exposure value for responders at a hazardous material scene are the:
A.
TLV-C and PEL.
B.
PEL and STEL.
C.
IDLH and STEL.
D.
IDLH and LD-50.
178. rays are the most dangerous type of radiation.
A.
Alpha
B.
Beta
C.
Delta
D.
Gamma
Directions: Match the words in Column A with the definitions in Column B.
Column A Column B
179. Beta
180. Alpha
181. Gamma
A.
Large particles with positive electrical charge
B.
Arise from a complete atom
C.
Small particles with negative or positive electrical charge
D.
Short energy wave
182. The CHEMTREC organization is available hours per day to provide information about to .
A.
24, certain chemicals, transport personnel only
B.
24, many chemicals, response agencies
C.
during normal working, only liquid chemicals, any emergency agency
D.
during normal working, selected chemicals, any interested person
183. Within the UN System, a container labeled with a Hazard Classification of 4 contains a/an:
A.
explosive.
B.
flammable gas.
C.
flammable solid.
D.
flammable liquid.
184. CHEMTREC/CANUTEC can usually provide all of the following information except:
A.
hazard information warnings.
B.
data bases.
C.
tactical information.
D.
advice on remediation contractors.
185. The lead agency during a terrorist emergency (crisis management) is the:
A.
regional haz mat team.
B.
FEMA.
C.
U.S. Fire Administration.
D.
FBI.
186. Federal agencies may be contacted and authorized for assistance at a terrorist activity by:
A.
requesting assistance from LEPC.
B.
claiming a Presidential declaration.
C.
the Incident Commander.
D.
requesting mutual aid.
187. In an emergency at a facility with bulk chemical storage, the firefighter may obtain an MSDS from:
A.
an EPA Alert.
B.
the chemical abstract service.
C.
the Department of Transportation.
D.
CHEMTREC or the manufacturer.
188. At an emergency incident, the firefighter may obtain appropriate MSDS information from:
A.
CAMEO.
B.
the National Response Center.
C.
OSHA.
D.
the website of the supplier.
189. To obtain hazard and response information, a firefighter can contact the
manufacturer using:
A.
the phone number on the MSDS.
B.
the CAS registry number.
C.
the Emergency Response Guide.
D.
CAMEO.
190. To contact the shipper for hazard and response information, a firefighter can obtain the phone number from:
A.
CAMEO.
B.
the CAS registry number.
C.
the Emergency Response Guide.
D.
the MSDS.
191. In an emergency, responders can obtain an MSDS from:
A.
the facility preincident plan.
B.
the label of the container.
C.
OSHA.
D.
the EPA.
192. In an emergency, responders can obtain an MSDS from:
A.
OSHA.
B.
computer-generated data.
C.
the DOT.
D.
the Emergency Response Guide.
193. Responders can contact the shipper directly from the emergency contact number on the:
A.
EPA Bill.
B.
OSHA Bill.
C.
shipping papers.
D.
CAS.
194. The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface is called the point.
A.
combustion
B.
ignition
C.
flash
D.
fire
195. Caustic soda and potassium hydroxide are examples of:
A.
polymers.
B.
catalysts.
C.
acids.
D.
bases.
196. Substances that ignite when combined create a reaction.
A.
hyperbolic
B.
hypergolic
C.
congenial
D.
cryogenic
197.
T F
A chemical with a vapor density of greater than one will tend to collect in low areas and below-grade places.
198.
T F
Chemicals with specific gravities greater than one tend to float on water.
199. A liquid's ability to mix with water best defines:
A.
solubility.
B.
surface tension.
C.
water reactivity.
D.
instability.
200. A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a:
A.
rapid relief.
B.
violent rupture.
C.
detonation.
D.
spill.
201. If a container is unable to adapt to applied stress, it will breach. An opening commonly associated with a BLEVE is called:
A.
a failure of container attachments.
B.
disintegration.
C.
runaway cracking.
D.
a puncture.
202. A is a release that is the result of a broken or damaged valve(s) that may last from several seconds to several minutes, depending on the size of the opening, type of container, and nature of contents.
A.
spill
B.
detonation
C.
rapid relief
D.
violent rupture
203. Hypergolic materials ignite when they:
A.
contact water.
B.
contact air.
C.
contact each other.
D.
encounter heat of friction.

Why was my question redirected here; Which coin paradox calls for the coin Force to maintain aggressive saturation patrolling conduct ambush and listing post operations. HAZMAT Awareness An Image/Link below is provided (as is) to download presentation. North American Emergency Response Guidebook. Your tool for success. Every emergency vehicle should have a copy. Hazmat technicians must be fully trained to provide support for a hazmat team. Procedures, and responsibilities for movement of regulated HAZMAT by military air shipment are identified in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204. For purposes of this regulation, the terms ammunition, explosives, and munitions are synonymous. Also, the term HAZMAT includes all regulated HAZMAT, including ammunition, explosives, and munitions.